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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam 認定 MCCQE 試験問題 (Q154-Q159):
質問 # 154
A 20-year-old man is brought by a friend to the emergency department with an elevated temperature, generalized muscle rigidity, hypovolemia, a fluctuating level of consciousness, and impaired attention. The patient also may be responding to auditory hallucinations. The friend informs you that the patient overdosed with a prescribed medication. Which one of the following medications is most likely to cause these symptoms?
- A. Risperidone
- B. Lamotrigine
- C. Lithium carbonate
- D. Lorazepam
- E. Amitriptyline
正解:A
解説:
This presentation is classic for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic drugs (particularly dopamine antagonists like risperidone). Features include hyperthermia, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic instability.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome":
"NMS is associated with antipsychotic use. Key features: hyperthermia, lead-pipe rigidity, altered consciousness, autonomic dysfunction. Elevated CK, leukocytosis often present." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Adverse Effects of Psychotropics):
"Candidates must recognize and manage neuroleptic malignant syndrome and differentiate it from other drug toxicities." Amitriptyline (B) overdose causes anticholinergic symptoms. Lamotrigine (A) causes rash or seizures in toxicity. Lithium (D) leads to tremor, ataxia, and GI upset. Lorazepam (E) causes CNS depression, not rigidity or fever.
質問 # 155
A 58-year-old woman presents to your office with refractory bipolar I disorder. She is on the following medications: lithium carbonate, valproic acid, and olanzapine. She also takes acetaminophen for osteoarthritis and pantoprazole for gastroesophageal reflux. Lately, she has noticed she bruises very easily. Laboratory work displays a platelet count of 70 × 10#/L (normal 130-400). Which one of the following is most likely to induce this side effect?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Pantoprazole
- C. Acetaminophen
- D. Lithium carbonate
- E. Valproic acid
正解:E
解説:
Valproic acid is well known to cause thrombocytopenia, especially at higher serum concentrations or in patients over 60. Bruising with platelet count <100 × 10#/L is a classic manifestation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, Mood Disorders & Pharmacology Section:
"Valproic acid is associated with hematologic side effects including thrombocytopenia. Platelet counts should be monitored regularly." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > Pharmacotherapy:
"The candidate must recognize adverse effects of mood stabilizers including hematologic complications of valproic acid." Other listed medications (A-D) have no common or direct link with thrombocytopenia in this context.
質問 # 156
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the office because he is not using his right arm after a fall from a swing.
Radiographs reveal a new fracture and old healing fractures. The parents deny any previous injuries. In addition to providing care for the fracture, which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Advise the parents to better supervise the patient.
- B. Refer the family to the social work department.
- C. Investigate the patient to rule out metabolic or endocrine disorders.
- D. Notify child protection services.
- E. Monitor the patient for future injuries.
正解:D
解説:
The clinical presentation ofmultiple fractures at different stages of healingin a young child raisesstrong suspicion of physical abuse(non-accidental trauma). In such situations,mandatory reporting to child protection services is legally and ethically required, even in the absence of parental admission or clear history.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, Child Maltreatment Section:
"Red flags include inconsistent history, delay in seeking care, multiple injuries in various stages of healing, and injuries not consistent with developmental level. Health care professionals arelegally obligatedto report suspected child abuse or neglect to child protection authorities without delay." MCCQE1 Objectives (Medical Expert > Pediatrics > 77-2):
"The candidate must be able to recognize when the findings are consistent with child abuse... When child abuse is suspected,the physician has a legal obligation to report to the appropriate child protection agency immediately." Options B, C, D, and E do not address the immediate child safety risk and legal duty. Social work involvement (E) is supportive but must follow or accompany notification to child protection, not replace it.
質問 # 157
A 73-year-old woman is seen in the office 2 weeks after a coronary bypass surgical procedure. The site of saphenous vein removal in the left thigh shows an area of tenderness and a 3 × 5 cm palpable mass. The skin is intact. Her temperature is 37.7 °C, hemoglobin is 110 g/L (125-167), and white blood cell count is 8 × 10#
/L (4-10). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Femoral artery aneurysm
- B. Wound hematoma
- C. Thrombophlebitis
- D. Acute venous bleeding
- E. Wound abscess
正解:B
解説:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
A localized mass with tenderness at a recent surgical site, intact skin, low-grade temperature, and normal white count is most consistent with a wound hematoma. This is a common complication at saphenous vein graft harvest sites post-CABG.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Surgery / Cardiac:
"Wound hematoma presents as localized swelling and tenderness near recent surgical sites. Abscess is suggested by erythema, warmth, and systemic signs." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 50-2: Postoperative Complications):
"Candidates must identify and differentiate wound complications, including hematoma, seroma, and abscess." Abscess (E) would show redness, fluctuance, and fever. Aneurysm (B) is rare and pulsatile. Bleeding (A) would not form a stable mass 2 weeks post-op. Thrombophlebitis (C) usually involves superficial veins and erythema.
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質問 # 158
A 17-year-old boy is brought by his 2 roommates to the emergency department (ED) after a party where he had been drinking and smoking cannabis. He reportedly was having a good time when he suddenly wanted to jump out of a window. His roommates describe him as "normal prior to a breakup with his girlfriend a week ago." He has since become anxious and unable to sleep. On examination, he is somnolent and appears intoxicated. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
- A. Arrange for an involuntary admission to psychiatry.
- B. Prescribe chlordiazepoxide and start an intravenous line.
- C. Observe the patient in the ED for several hours.
- D. Call the patient's parents to take him home.
正解:A
解説:
This adolescent exhibited acute suicidal behavior (attempted to jump out of a window), which is a psychiatric emergency. Regardless of intoxication or cause, such behavior mandates a safety-first approach: involuntary psychiatric assessment and protection from self-harm.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Suicide and Crisis Intervention" Section:
"Involuntary psychiatric admission is indicated when a patient poses a danger to themselves or others.
Suicidal ideation or attempts require immediate evaluation and monitoring." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-2: Suicide and Risk Management):
"Candidates must identify suicidal behavior and initiate appropriate action, including involuntary admission if necessary for safety." Observation (B) may miss the window for action. Parents (A) should be contacted but are not a substitute for admission. Chlordiazepoxide (C) is not first-line in this scenario.
質問 # 159
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