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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Reliable Test Question | Detailed ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management Study Dumps
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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Sample Questions (Q17-Q22):
NEW QUESTION # 17
[Apply Deployment Management Processes]
What should the organization keep in mind when planning improvements to deployment models?
- A. The same deployment approach should be used for deployments of similar size
- B. The impact of deployed software should not be considered when designing these models
- C. Deployment model updates should consider inefficient processes
- D. User resistance to updates is not a relevant factor to consider when designing deployment models
Answer: C
Explanation:
ITIL 4 emphasizes continual improvement in deployment management, which includes identifying and addressing inefficiencies in deployment models to enhance performance, reliability, and value delivery. Option D directly aligns with this principle by focusing on streamlining inefficient processes during model updates.
Option A (The impact of deployed software should not be considered when designing these models): Incorrect, as ITIL 4 stresses that the impact of deployments on services, users, and the organization is a critical consideration to ensure value and minimize disruption.
Option B (User resistance to updates is not a relevant factor to consider when designing deployment models): Incorrect, as user experience and acceptance are key factors in ITIL 4's value co-creation model, and resistance must be addressed to ensure successful deployments.
Option C (The same deployment approach should be used for deployments of similar size): Incorrect, as ITIL 4 advocates for context-specific deployment models tailored to the unique needs of each service or environment, not a one-size-fits-all approach.
Option D (Deployment model updates should consider inefficient processes): Correct, as improving deployment models involves analyzing current processes, identifying bottlenecks or waste, and optimizing workflows to deliver greater value.
NEW QUESTION # 18
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which of the following BEST describes the scope of deployment management practice?
- A. The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments
- B. The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment
- C. The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment
- D. The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment
Answer: A
Explanation:
ITIL 4's deployment management practice encompasses moving hardware, software, and associated components into or out of environments (e.g., staging, testing, or production) to support service delivery. Option A, which includes deploying network hubs (hardware) and removing applications from staging environments (software), accurately reflects this broad scope across the service lifecycle.
Option A (The practice includes deploying network hubs to and removing applications from staging environments): Correct, as it covers both hardware and software movements across environments, aligning with ITIL 4's definition of deployment management.
Option B (The practice includes updating service documentation and transferring it to the live environment): Incorrect, as updating and transferring documentation is part of knowledge management, not deployment management.
Option C (The practice includes removing configuration documentation but not physical servers from the live environment): Incorrect, as deployment management includes moving physical servers, and configuration documentation is managed elsewhere.
Option D (The practice includes deploying network hubs but not additional software licenses to the live environment): Incorrect, as software licenses may be part of deployment if required, and the option arbitrarily limits the scope.
NEW QUESTION # 19
[Measure and Improve Deployment Management]
An IT service manager is analyzing a value stream that is used to deploy new and changed services. The manager has interviewed many staff and has identified all the workflow steps. The manager is now evaluating the workflow steps so that they can plan improvements. Which activity should the manager carry out as part of this evaluation?
- A. Establish what value is created in each workflow step
- B. Collect data about what happens in each workflow step
- C. Define an ideal series of workflow steps for the future
- D. Identify wasteful steps that could be eliminated
Answer: A
Explanation:
ITIL 4's value stream analysis focuses on understanding the contribution of each step to overall value delivery to identify improvement opportunities. When evaluating workflow steps, the manager should establish what value is created in each step (Option D), as this provides the foundation for assessing whether steps are necessary, effective, or aligned with organizational goals.
Option A (Collect data about what happens in each workflow step): Incorrect, as data collection is part of identifying steps (already done, per the question), not evaluating their value.
Option B (Identify wasteful steps that could be eliminated): Incorrect, as identifying waste is a subsequent action that depends on first understanding the value of each step.
Option C (Define an ideal series of workflow steps for the future): Incorrect, as defining future steps is part of planning improvements, not evaluating current steps.
Option D (Establish what value is created in each workflow step): Correct, as evaluating value per step is critical to understanding the stream's effectiveness and prioritizing improvements, per ITIL 4.
NEW QUESTION # 20
[Understand the Key Concepts of Deployment Management]
Which is a key feature of continuous deployment which is not found in other CI/CD stages?
- A. It enables users to benefit immediately from changes
- B. It predominantly uses staging environments
- C. It allows individual decisions about software releases
- D. It automatically tests software code
Answer: A
Explanation:
Continuous deployment (CD) in ITIL 4 is the most advanced stage of the CI/CD pipeline, where every validated change is automatically deployed to production without manual intervention. The key feature unique to continuous deployment, not found in continuous integration or continuous delivery, is that it enables users to benefit immediately from changes (Option B), as changes reach production instantly after passing automated tests.
Option A (It automatically tests software code): Incorrect, as automated testing is a feature of continuous integration and continuous delivery, not unique to continuous deployment.
Option B (It enables users to benefit immediately from changes): Correct, as continuous deployment automatically pushes validated changes to production, delivering value to users without delay, unlike other CI/CD stages.
Option C (It predominantly uses staging environments): Incorrect, as continuous deployment minimizes reliance on staging environments, deploying directly to production.
Option D (It allows individual decisions about software releases): Incorrect, as continuous deployment eliminates manual release decisions, relying on automation for consistency.
NEW QUESTION # 21
[Understand Roles and Responsibilities]
A fast-growing service provider is introducing separate roles of deployment manager and deployment practitioner. Which TWO activities is a deployment manager responsible for?
Ensuring that deployment records are up-to-date and correct
Prioritizing multiple deployments that require use of the same resources Ensuring deployment plans support other service management plans Capturing and verifying users' opinions on deployments
- A. 1 and 4
- B. 1 and 2
- C. 2 and 3
- D. 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
In ITIL 4, the deployment manager role focuses on strategic and coordinating activities, such as overseeing resource allocation and aligning deployment plans with broader service management objectives. The correct activities are:
Activity 2 (Prioritizing multiple deployments that require use of the same resources): A deployment manager ensures efficient resource use by prioritizing conflicting deployments, a key managerial responsibility.
Activity 3 (Ensuring deployment plans support other service management plans): The deployment manager aligns deployment activities with other practices (e.g., change enablement, release management) to ensure coherence across service management, another strategic task.
Activity 1 (Ensuring that deployment records are up-to-date and correct): This is typically a task for a deployment practitioner, who handles operational details like record-keeping, not a manager's core responsibility.
Activity 4 (Capturing and verifying users' opinions on deployments): This aligns more with practices like relationship management or service desk activities, not the deployment manager's role, which focuses on planning and execution rather than user feedback collection.
NEW QUESTION # 22
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